A DOCS Education member seeks the faculty’s assistance:
I am considering sedating a patient of mine that is taking 120 mg per day of diltiazem. He has a history of cardiac ablation but is otherwise healthy. This will be my fourth sedation and the first with a "D" drug interaction. Would this patient be an ASA II? Also, should the initial doses of diazepam and triazolam be reduced? Should I use a different protocol? And finally, should I even be sedating this patient?